Many Court rulings mention the prohibition of "Felons" to possess, etc, in both US and Commonwealth Courts.

I'm a little confused however, over the language used in the Courts, and the Statutes, both Federal and PA.

The Statutes seem to agree that anyone convicted of a crime punishable by imprisonment of one year or more may not possess.

However, U.S. v Bowdach, 414 F. Supp. 1346 (D.S. Fla 1976), aff`d, 561 F.2d 1160 (5th Cir. 1977). The court held that "possession of the shotgun by a non-felon has no legal consequences. U.S. Const. Amend. II."

So here, the term "Felon" seems to have been taken literally by the Appeals Court.

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What I can't seem to find is whether the "one year or more" language appeared after this Court decision.

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Years ago, I pleaded guilty to one count of "corruption of a minor" an M1 offense in PA, and a disabling offense under 6105.

Does anyone have any info on this?